Betting Talk

The Intuiative side of Regression debate?

homerplayerhomerplayer Senior Member
edited April 2014 in Sports Betting
Consider myself above average on the math side of things. Lights years ahead of the magical day I found BT oh so many years ago, but still with much to learn and certainly not on the same level of others that think in numbers. Still stray off the reservation now and then.

See myself as a bridge builder, a divide conquerer as it were. So hear me out, because there is often tension between the math and non math guys (non math in the sense of viewing this endeavor as requiring more than just math to win). But the camps aren't that different.

Question: on a rudimentary level, is the phrase "this ________ is due" an intuiative way to say "this _______ has under/over performed and I expect a regression to the mean"?

That is an oversimplified example for illustrative purposes only. I would never endorse that train of thought like that guy that said his system (system sucks people) was due cuz it was never under 33% and it was like 15 games. But on a basic, fundamental level, perhaps the non math guys have an inkling, but not a name. The camps use different terms. Thoughts? Can we hug it out?

Comments

  • GoatsGoats Head Moderator
    edited April 2014

    Question: on a rudimentary level, is the phrase "this ________ is due" an intuiative way to say "this _______ has under/over performed and I expect a regression to the mean"?

    I'd say they are closer to equivalent statements if you edited it to something like "this ________ is due in the long run" because the common phrasing of something being due usually refers to the short term/immediate future.
  • homerplayerhomerplayer Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    Darn good point Goats. That is a part I wanted to work in but hard to include everything whilst dropping a deuce at work (too much?). But it does speak to the the heart of the problem. We should never assign "due" to a single event. Think the delivery is important when some folks make inaccurate short term assumptions. Be great if we could get them to understand that a correction might be expected, but that it also might take 10, 100, or 1,000 events to generate the suspected result.

    Both camps are at fault as well. Math guys sometimes just tear into people. Some non math guys never want to even listen though.
  • TommyLTommyL Super Moderator
    edited April 2014
    Question: on a rudimentary level, is the phrase "this ________ is due" an intuiative way to say "this _______ has under/over performed and I expect a regression to the mean"?

    That is an oversimplified example for illustrative purposes only. I would never endorse that train of thought like that guy that said his system (system sucks people) was due cuz it was never under 33% and it was like 15 games. But on a basic, fundamental level, perhaps the non math guys have an inkling, but not a name. The camps use different terms. Thoughts? Can we hug it out?

    I'd say that this statement shows that the person has no understanding of regression.
  • TommyLTommyL Super Moderator
    edited April 2014
    Darn good point Goats. That is a part I wanted to work in but hard to include everything whilst dropping a deuce at work (too much?). But it does speak to the the heart of the problem. We should never assign "due" to a single event. Think the delivery is important when some folks make inaccurate short term assumptions. Be great if we could get them to understand that a correction might be expected, but that it also might take 10, 100, or 1,000 events to generate the suspected result.

    Both camps are at fault as well. Math guys sometimes just tear into people. Some non math guys never want to even listen though.

    It's not that a "correction" is expected, it's that you expect the long term results to be in line with expectations, and if the short term results are skewed one way or the other, they should naturally move back towards the expectation as the sample size increases.

    I think the coin flip example often presents the easiest way for people to understand this stuff. Say that you've flipped a coin 10 times and have 10 straight heads. If you're going to flip it 90 more times, the Expected Value of heads over the next 90 flips would be 45. Heads is at 100% right now through 10 flips. It will regress towards 50% with the more flips that you have. If you're going to have 20 total flips, you won't get close to 50% (most likely). If these were the first 10 flips in a series of 1 million flips, chances are that you'll get a lot closer to 50%.

    But I don't see anything intuitive about saying that tails is now "due" since we've started out with 10 straight heads. Tails is no more "due" than it would be if we started out 5-5, or started out with 10 straight tails.
  • GoatsGoats Head Moderator
    edited April 2014
    HP, I probably should have added that I don't really understand to what "debate" you are referring. I wanted to help with my response, but to be honest, I'm not sure what your main point is.

    As Tommy pointed out above, most people just don't understand the concept of regression to the mean. Once they do, there's not a whole lot to discuss.
  • DeadMoneyDeadMoney Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    Is a second half play on a game where the 1st half was way off too small of a sample size to think like this?
    Like a +5 dog is up 5 at half, and the favorite is -4 at half (+1 in game now), do we play the fave cause we think it'll regress to the mean of -5?
    Cause you get lots of CLV sometimes or maybe this is a dumb question cause every game is different.
    Basically this is a messy way of asking, are the 1st and 2nd halves independent events?
  • duritodurito Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    If they were independent events the 2h line wouldn't vary based on the score in the 1st half.
  • TommyLTommyL Super Moderator
    edited April 2014
    DeadMoney wrote: »
    Is a second half play on a game where the 1st half was way off too small of a sample size to think like this?
    Like a +5 dog is up 5 at half, and the favorite is -4 at half (+1 in game now), do we play the fave cause we think it'll regress to the mean of -5?
    Cause you get lots of CLV sometimes or maybe this is a dumb question cause every game is different.
    Basically this is a messy way of asking, are the 1st and 2nd halves independent events?

    I'll try to say this as nicely as possible...this line of thinking is way off. You're not getting "CLV". Beating the closing line is a lot different than playing into an adjusted line based upon the results of the 1st half. Regression has absolutely nothing to do with betting 1st halves vs 2nd halves.
  • BigKahunaBigKahuna Banned
    edited April 2014
    DeadMoney wrote: »
    Is a second half play on a game where the 1st half was way off too small of a sample size to think like this?
    Like a +5 dog is up 5 at half, and the favorite is -4 at half (+1 in game now), do we play the fave cause we think it'll regress to the mean of -5?
    Cause you get lots of CLV sometimes or maybe this is a dumb question cause every game is different.
    Basically this is a messy way of asking, are the 1st and 2nd halves independent events?

    Lot more factors into a 2nd half wager then simply getting back to the FG line . (common error)
    Many people view it as a great value or maybe even CLV, but it is actually a new wager with new factors. One has nothing to do with the other.
  • blackbullblackbull Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    The biggest mistake people make in this arena of thought is assuming that the LT mean performance of the asset being examined is also the LT mean performance of all assets currently existing in the examined asset's marketplace. OR that the the examined asset will regress to past mean performance instead of regressing to expected future mean performance.
  • golfer1000golfer1000 Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    This is more confusing than a BG analysis
  • lumpy19lumpy19 Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    the extra a in intuitive is blowing my mind
  • homerplayerhomerplayer Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    lumpy19 wrote: »
    the extra a in intuitive is blowing my mind

    You try typing this shit on a coopertino iPhone.
  • CirclejerkCirclejerk Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    lumpy19 wrote: »
    the extra a in intuitive is blowing my mind

    LOL. I was going to post something like this but then I realized my spelling is the worst.
  • DeadMoneyDeadMoney Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    Thank you for the quick responses guys. I'm Just a college kid trying to learn. Never have to worry about offending me, Tommy.
  • homerplayerhomerplayer Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    Goats wrote: »
    HP, I probably should have added that I don't really understand to what "debate" you are referring. I wanted to help with my response, but to be honest, I'm not sure what your main point is.

    As Tommy pointed out above, most people just don't understand the concept of regression to the mean. Once they do, there's not a whole lot to discuss.

    Sorry about that, forget you guys don't live inside my head so I don't write out every little detail, which sometimes proves detrimental to the process. Point is instincts are already leading the non math guys down a path toward the concept. The debate part is how do we bridge the gap? How do we get the math guys to patiently explain the concept (short of a sticky) time after time and how do we get the non math guys to understand it? Isn't a terribly hard concept, and as I asserted multiple times, we have a language barrier to overcome.

    TL-appreciate the input as always. Not a fan of the coin flip example in this regard as I was trying to apply it to sports betting. So when I simply write about a team under/over achieve, I trust readers to take understand the full meaning, which again, is my fault. Used correction there cuz I didn't want to use expected twice in a span of 2 sentences, damn creative writing courses from high school!! But these events I am referring to aren't 50/50. Not a 50/50 change Verlander wins when takes the mound. Not an50/50 chance Brady is going to lose or throw for 150 yards when he lines up under center.

    I meant to say, but got lazy and typing on these devices super sucks, we collect this data, we compare a teams short term pefofrmance against what we believe the true performance should based on observation of historical performance to this point. When good teams suck its a slump. Shit teams win they're hot (not my terms, for illustrative purposes only).

    In this context, non math guys say due. I remember sixth sense defending the use of regression on forecasting turnovers.

    On the whole I feel BT could be even better than it already is, and it is awesome. The debate goes back to how do we get the two sides to communicate without pissing contests ensuing?

    Unless I am missing the intent of BT. Sharp forum? Hell yes. Kind and nurturing to noobs? Sometimes yes, sometimes no.
  • BigKahunaBigKahuna Banned
    edited April 2014
    ok, I will bite homer. What is it us non-math guys don't get ?
    The idea that we believe there is more to sports wagering then a formula is incorrect ?
    Just because some of us believe in more then math, does not mean we don't understand math or probability on a wager.
  • duritodurito Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    I don't have the faintest idea what this thread is about.
  • golfer1000golfer1000 Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    durito wrote: »
    I don't have the faintest idea what this thread is about.

    Rito, check your email
  • blackbullblackbull Senior Member
    edited April 2014
    DeadMoney wrote: »
    Thank you for the quick responses guys. I'm Just a college kid trying to learn. Never have to worry about offending me, Tommy.

    I am being sincere when I say this: This attitude will carry you a long way. I wish you the best of luck in the future my man.
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