If you bet
1.XX to win 1 on faves
and you bet
.XX to win 1 on dogs
doesnt the line value diminish on dogs?
open to discussion please
If you bet
1.XX to win 1 on faves
and you bet
.XX to win 1 on dogs
doesnt the line value diminish on dogs?
open to discussion please
hey thanks a ton guys, you guys are a big help, LOL
well could you kindly explain quickly why you say no?
How many useless threads are you going to create? So you have a complicated model yet ask the most basic questions.
No one should even bother answering of your questions. Now if you are newbie and ask these questions, no problem. However, you talk like you have some complicated model which is just funny judging by the way you post. I honestly am starting to believe you are either a troll or some delusional guy who thinks he has some type of model.
if it is so basic the question Donny, answer it nobody else here seems to want to, so grace me with your opinion on the matter.
if you invest
if you get 2% on 100 you get 2
and you get 4% on 50 you get 2
so if you avg your % you get 3%
3% on 150 is 4.50 but you only got 4, right?
I bet Yankees 2 units get 4%
I bet Orioles .4 units get 4%
big difference right?
You’re not accounting for the odds on each bet.
can you give me an example please, I dont understand how that changes anything
Yankees -200 I bet 2 units say I get 5% CLV
Orioles +200 I bet .5 units say I get 10% CLV
avg clv 7.5% but how can this be if i bet a majority of my money on the 5% CLV ?
You win more in proportion to your bet on the second wager. Your logic is ignoring that and only looking at money risked.
so you mean CLV on losses should not be counted toward average CLV?